Which of the following statements about exchange rate pass-through is NOT true?
a. Exchange-rate pass-through demonstrates the elasticity of local-currency import prices with respect to the local-currency price of foreign currency.
b. The increased competitiveness of international trade has led to the reduction of pass-through coefficient.
c. Import prices in industries with low product differentiation and high demand elasticities are affected by exchange rate changes more than in industries with a high degree of product differentiation and low demand elasticities.
d. The average pass-through coefficient of 0.5 means that if the U.S. dollar appreciates or depreciates by 1%, import prices of foreign products change, on average, by about 0.5%.
Which of the following statements is/are TRUE?
(a) At market equilibrium, quantity demanded, and quantity supplied are equal. |
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(b) At market equilibriums Supply and Demand are equal. |
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(c) A market surplus exists when quantity supplied exceeds quantity demanded. |
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(d) A market shortage exists when quantity demanded exceeds quantity supplied. |
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(e) When a market shortage exists, the buyers will bid up the price of the good which will cause the quantity demanded to decrease and quantity supplied to increase until equilibrium is restored. |
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(f) In the case of a market surplus, the suppliers will bid down the price causing the quantity demanded to increase and quantity supplied to increase until equilibrium is restored. |
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(g) A market shortage causes Supply to increase and Demand to decrease until equilibrium is restored. |
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(h) A market surplus causes the Demand to increase and Supply to decrease until equilibrium is restored. |
Which of the following statements regarding capital asset holding periods is false?
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Which of the following statements is true about a ½th–order reaction having only one reactant.
A.
B.
rises by 6 percent
C.
rises by
percent
D.
rises by at least
percent
The heuristic function h[n] is called admissible if h[n] is never larger than h*[n], namely h[n] is always less or equal to true cheapest cost from n to the goal.
If the heuristic function, h always underestimates the true cost [h[n] is smaller than h*[n]), then A* is guaranteed to find an optimal solution.
When h is inconsistent, it can not be admissible.
If h is consistent and h[goal)=0 then h is admissible
A* is complete and optimal
QUESTION 1
Software (that is, the Python instructions you write, which are also called code) controls hardware (that is, computers and related devices). |
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Programmers use the Python Standard Library and various other libraries to “reinvent the wheel.” |
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Programmers use libraries to create software objects that they interact with to perform significant tasks with modest numbers of instructions. |
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IPython executes Python instructions interactively and immediately shows their results. |
QUESTION 2
Decades ago, most computer applications ran on networked computers. |
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Today’s applications can be written with the aim of communicating among the world’s computers via the Internet. |
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A key intersection between computer science and data science is artificial intelligence. |
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All of the above statements are true. |
Linked List Question
Which of the following statements are correct regarding the time complexity of getting the index of an item in a list?
Which of the following statements are correct regarding the time complexity of removing an item from a list?
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Which of the following statements are correct about adding an element to a list implemented using arrays with no maximum limit for the number of elements and array growing?
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Which of the following statements about the Bitcoin scripting language is INCORRECT:
Which of the following statements about the fully validating nodes/lightweight nodes is INCORRECT:
Which of the following statements about intangible assets are correct?
1 If certain criteria are met, research expenditure must be recognised as an intangible asset.
2 The notes to the financial statements should disclose the gross carrying amount and the
accumulated amortisation at the beginning and the end of the period for each class of intangible
asset.
3 Intangible assets must be amortised over their useful life.
A 2 and 3 only
B 1 and 3 only
C 1 and 2 only
D All three statements are correct.
7.
Which of the following statements is true regarding depreciation methods?
Which of the following statements about Anonymity is CORRECT:
A. Bitcoin is anonymous as it doesn’t use any name at all.
B. In the Bitcoin network, you can only create a limited number of addresses.
C. Unlinkability means that if a user interacts with the system repeatedly, these different interactions should not be able to be tied to each other from the point of view of the adversary.
D. The anonymity set of your transaction is the set of transactions without real identities.
Logistic regression can be used for modeling the continuous response variable with dichotomous explanatory variable.
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Logistic regression can be used for modeling the dichotomous response variable with dichotomous explanatory variable.
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Logistic regression can be used for modeling the continuous response variable with dichotomous or other type of categorical explanatory variables.
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Logistic regression can be used for modeling the dichotomous response variable with dichotomous and not for continuous explanatory variables.
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Logistic regression can be used for modeling the dichotomous response variable with categorical explanatory variables and/or continuous explanatory variables.
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Which of the following statements best describes the goals and objectives of the overall Progressive Movement in turn of the century America?
A. |
Social reform needed to be undertaken by the government through regulations aimed at addressing the needs of the public and reigning in corrupt influences |
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B. |
The US needed to recognize its increasingly important role in the international affairs and take a leadership role in solving global problems that affected all modern nations |
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C. |
Americans needed to return to a sense of rugged individualism, which could be stimulated by providing more economic and educational opportunities so common people could make something more of their lives |
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D. |
The role of government needed to be more limited, allowing market forces to demonstrate what the public truly valued and believed the nation should pursue |
Which of the following statements about a change in accounting estimate is not true?
A. |
A change in accounting estimate can only be made when it is required to comply with an accounting standard or interpretation. |
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B. |
Changes in accounting estimates result from new information or new developments. |
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C. |
The effects of a change in accounting estimate should be applied prospectively. |
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D. |
A change in estimate is an adjustment of the carrying amount of an asset or a liability, or the amount of the periodic consumption of an asset. |
Which of the following statements is true concerning the electrochemical cell described below at 25oC?
Cu | Cu2+(0.427 M) || Cu2+(0.208] M) | Cu
Cu2+(aq) + 2e– → Cu(s); ε° = 0.34 V
Please tell me which of the multile choice awnsers are correct
Which of the following statements is correct about a parameter and a statistic associated with repeated random samples of the same size from the same population?
Select one or more:
a. Values of the parameter will vary from sample to sample but values of the statistic will not.
b. Values of the statistic will vary according to the sampling distribution of the statistic.
c. Values of the parameter will vary according to the sampling distribution of the parameter.
d. Values of both the parameter and the statistic will vary from sample to sample.
which of the following statements are correct given a constant interest rate and constant giver year period of time?
1) An increase in the future values causes the present value to declines
2) An increase in the future value cause the present value to increase
3) There is inverse relationship between the present value and future value
4) There is a direct relationship between the present value and the future value
a) 2 and 3 only
b) 2 and 4 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1 and 4 only
e) 1 only
Which of the following statements are true about globaliza-
tion methods?
a. International licensing involves the creation of a new
company that is owned by two or more firms from dif-
ferent countries.
b. Exporting involves contracts that allow a foreign com-
pany to use a domestic company’s trademarks, patents,
processes, or technology.
c. Global sourcing involves the close coordination of
research and development, purchasing, marketing, and
manufacturing across national boundaries.
d. A wholly owned international subsidiary is created
when a foreign government owns 100 percent of the
equity in a U.S.-based firm.
Which of the following statement is true concerning the electrochemical cell depicted below? Ba │ Ba2+(aq) ││ Zn2+(aq) │ Zn ;
Ba2+(aq) + 2e– → Ba(s) E°= -2.97 V
Zn2+(aq) + 2e– → Zn(s) E°= -0.76 V
Which of the following statements about bone tissue is/are TRUE?
Group of answer choices
a. Spiraling collagen fibers gives bone its tremendous resistance to torsional forces.
b. Concentric rings of bone matrix, called lamellae, compose an osteon.
c. Bone marrow occurs within the spongy bone and in a central medullary cavity.
d. The epiphyseal plate of long bones close during fetal development.
e. Calcium phosphate salts crystallize to form the inorganic part of bone.
f. Osteoblasts are immature, bone-forming cells.
g. Bones are classified by shape: long, short, irregular, or flat.
h. The trabeculae of compact bone are arranged in parallel units along the long axis.
Which of the following statements is a reflection of the fact that the average fixed cost falls as output rises?
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Which of the following statement is NOT true regarding a foreign currency transaction?
Which of the following statements is (are) correct? (More
than one statement may be correct.)
a. A bond issue is a technique for subdividing a very large
loan into many small, transferable units.
b. Bond interest payments are contractual obligations,
whereas the board of directors determines whether or
not dividends will be paid.
c. As interest rates rise, the market prices of bonds fall; as
interest rates fall, bond prices tend to rise.
d. Bond interest payments are deductible in determining
income subject to income taxes, whereas dividends
paid to stockholders are not deductible.
(A) The excess energy of the reactants required to dissociate into products is known as the activation
energy.
(B) The rate constant of a reaction depends on the temperature of the system.
(C) Pressure, temperature and composition are variables affecting the rate of homogeneous reactions.
(D) A rise in temperature normally tends to decrease the reaction rate.
2. The probability of trimolecular (or termolecular) reaction occurring is almost non-existent. The
molecularity of a reaction is the number of atoms, ions, or molecules involved in a reaction step.
(A) Only the second statement is correct.
(B) Only the first statement is correct.
(C) Both statements are correct. (D) Both statements are incorrect.
3. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
(A) The rate constant of a reaction is a function of the temperature of the system.
(B) The reactions with low activation energy are slow.
(C) The molecularity and the order of reaction respectively, for the hydrolysis of methyl acetate in presence
of acids are 2 & 1.
(D) If the time required to change the concentration of reactant to half its original value is independent of the initial concentration, the order of reaction is one.
4. Which of the following is true about an elementary process?
(A) A reaction that proceeds in only one step is an elementary process.
(B) A reaction with a zero order rate law is an elementary process.
(C) A reaction involving only atoms is an elementary process.
(D) All chemical reactions are elementary processes.
please answer all!
Which of the following statements is false?
A strength of science is that with enough evidence, the knowledge it develops can be established as absolutely true. |
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A strength of science is that the knowledge it develops about nature may change due to new evidence.
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A strength of science is its conservative vetting process that assesses whether change in the knowledge it has developed is warranted.
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A strength of science is that the knowledge it develops about nature may change due to reinterpretation of existing evidence.
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Which of the following statements describes why a properly designed and executed
audit may not detect a material misstatement in the financial statements resulting
from fraud?
(1) Audit procedures that are effective for detecting unintentional misstatements may
be ineffective for an intentional misstatement that is concealed through collusion.
(2) An audit is designed to provide reasonable assurance of detecting material
errors, but there is no similar responsibility concerning fraud.
(3) The factors considered in assessing control risk indicated an increased risk of
intentional misstatements, but only a low risk of unintentional misstatements.
(4) The auditor did not consider factors influencing audit risk for account balances
that have effects pervasive to the financial statements taken as a whole
A. “Foods that contain dietary fiber, vitamin A or vitamin C may reduce the risk of cancer. Although a serving of our creamed broccoli has 7 grams of fat, it is an excellent source of fiber and vitamins A and C.”
B. “Healthful diets with adequate folate may reduce a woman’s risk of having a child with a brain or spinal cord defect.”
C. “Vitamin C reduces the risk of the common cold by 50%.”
D. “Drinking whole milk adds calcium and vitamin D to your diet. These nutrients are essential for strengthening bones.”
Which of the following statements is NOT TRUE for the mean?
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A. Every set of interval-level data has a mean value.
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B. The mean is not affected by extreme values in a data set.
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C. A data set has only one mean value.
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D. The total of the deviations of every observation from the mean is zero.
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John Cruise is conducting a study about monthly internet usage among households during this time of the COVID-19 pandemic. He first divided his target population according to barangays and selected a random sample of 4 barangays where he surveyed all household in these sampled barangays. What kind of sampling technique did he use?
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A. Simple random sampling
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B. Cluster random sampling
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C. Stratified random sampling
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D. Systematic random sampling
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What is the lowest level of measurement for the data where the mode could be determined?
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A. Nominal |
B. Ordinal |
C. Interval |
D. Ratio |
Consider a data set of 11 distinct measurements with mean equal to A and median equal to B. If the highest value was decreased to a value smaller than the median B, how would the mean and median be affected?
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A. The mean and median will both decrease.
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B. The mean and median will not change.
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C. The mean will not change and the median will decrease.
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D. The mean will decrease and the median will not change.
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Which of the following statements are correct? Explain your answers.
a. |
This action increases the likelihood of rejecting H0 and increases the risk of a Type I error.
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b. |
This action decreases the likelihood of rejecting H0 and increases the risk of a Type I error.
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c. |
This action decreases the likelihood of rejecting H0 and increases the risk of a Type II error.
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d. |
This action increases the likelihood of rejecting H0 and increases the risk of a Type II error.
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Which of the following statements is false?
a) The total resistance of several resistors in series is always greater than the resistance of any single resistor
b) The total resistance of several resistors in parallel is always less than the resistance of any single resistor
c) The total capacitance of several capacitors in series is always greater than the capacitance of any single capacitor
d) The total capacitance of several capacitors in parallel is always greater than the capacitance of any single capacitor
Which of the following statements about an accounting information system (AIS) is incorrect ?(CPA adapted)
a. The information produced by AIS is made available to all levels of management for use in planning and
controlling an organization’s activities.
b. An AIS is best suited to solve problems where there is great uncertainty and ill-defined reporting
requirements.
c. An AIS supports day-to-day operations by collecting and storing data about an organization’s transactions
d.An AIS provides adequate controls to safeguard the assets, to ensure that the assets and data are
available when needed, and to ensure that data/information is accurate and reliable
Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
The statement of cash flows reflects cash flows from operations and from borrowings, but it does not reflect cash obtained by selling new common stock. |
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The statement of cash flows shows how much the firm’s cash and short-term liquid securities (or cash equivalents), increased or decreased during a given year. |
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The statement of cash flows reflects cash flows from operations, but it does not reflect the effects of buying or selling fixed assets. |
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The statement of cash flows shows where the firm’s cash is located; indeed, it provides a listing of all banks and brokerage houses where cash is on deposit. |
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The statement of cash flows reflects cash flows from continuing operations, but it does not reflect the effects of changes in working capital. |
which of the following statements is correct regarding the affect of pH on the ionization of R groups in amino acids. Put yes or no next to each number.
1) at an acidic pH, amino groups in an R group tend to lonize by accepting a proton and have a positive charge
2) at an acidic pH, carboxyl groups in an R group are likely to be in an unionized state.
3) at an alkaline pH, amino groups in an R group have a tendency to remain unionized (and uncharged).
4) at an alkaline pH, carboxyl groups in an R group have a tendency to lonize by loosing a hydrogen ion (H+)
5) R groups that do not have an amino or carboxyl group do not ionize at pH of the environment changes.
Which of the following statements about a Nash equilibrium is not correct?
A. Each player plays a best response to opponents’ Nash strategies.
B. No player has a profitable unilateral deviation.
C. For each finite noncoopertiave game there always exists a pure strategy Nash equilibrium.
D. A game has at least two players.
Which one of the following statements is incorrect?
A. For dynamic games with complete information, not all subgame perfect Nash equilibrium points can be found by backward induction.
B. A finite dynamic game with complete information may also have a normal form representation.
C. A finite static game with complete information may not have a pure strategy Nash equilibrium.
D. A finite static game with complete information cannot have an extensive form representation.
Which one of the following statements is correct?
A. A supergame cannot have any subgame perfect Nash equilibrium.
B. A supergame can only have finite number of subgame perfect Nash equilibrium points.
C. None of the other answers is correct.
D. A supergame must have a unique subgame perfect Nash equilibrium.
Which of the following statements about the classic Cournot duopoly model is incorrect?
There exist examples that have unique Nash equilibrium points.
The products of the two firms are homogeneous.
The two firms decide on their prices and let their quantities be dictated demand conditions.
It is a static game with complete information.
QUESTION 5
Any computer can directly understand only its own machine language, defined by its hardware design. |
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The most widely used Python implementation—CPython (which is written in the C programming language for performance)—uses a clever mixture of compilation and interpretation to run programs. |
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Translator programs called assemblers convert assembly-language programs to machine language at computer speeds. |
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Interpreter programs, developed to execute high-level language programs directly, avoid the delay of compilation, and run faster than compiled programs. |
QUESTION 6
superclass, subclass |
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hyperclass, subclass |
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target, superclass |
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subclass, superclass |
QUESTION 7
object-oriented |
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high-level |
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open-source |
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proprietary |
Which of the following statements reflects an auditor’s responsibility for detecting
fraud?
(1) An auditor is responsible for detecting employee errors and simple fraud, but
not for discovering fraudulent acts involving employee collusion or management
override.
(2) An auditor should plan the audit to detect fraud caused by departures from GAAP.
(3) An auditor is not responsible for detecting fraud unless the application of auditing
standards would result in such detection.
(4) An auditor should design the audit to provide reasonable assurance of detecting
errors and fraud that are material to the financial statements.
Which of the following statements is (are) correct?
(x) If the supply of a product increases, we would expect that the equilibrium price would decrease and the
equilibrium quantity would increase.
(y) If the demand for a product decreases, we would expect that the equilibrium price would decrease and
the equilibrium quantity would decrease.
(z) If the demand for a product increases or the supply of a product decreases, we would expect that the
equilibrium price would decrease.
A. (x), (y) and (z)
B. (x) and (y) only
C. (x) and (z) only
D. (y) and (z) only
E. (x) only.
Which of the following statements about hash pointers in Blockchain is CORRECT?
A. A hash pointer is only used to retrieve the information.
B. A hash pointer is only used to verify that the information in the previous block hasn’t been changed.
C. In the blockchain, the head of the list is a regular hash‐pointer that points to the first data block created in the network.
D. In the blockchain, if an attacker tampers a block without modifying other blocks, then we cannot detect the change.
you MUST explain your answer. Also, explain why 1 or 2 of the other options are FALSE:
>>>
Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
a. The constant growth model takes into consideration the capital gains investors expect to earn on a stock.
b. Two firms with the same expected dividend and growth rate must also have the same stock price.
c. It is appropriate to use the constant growth model to estimate a stock’s value even if its growth rate is never expected to become constant.
d. If a stock has a required rate of return rs = 12%, and if its dividend is expected to grow at a constant rate of 5%, this implies that the stock’s dividend yield is also 5%.
e. The price of a stock is the present value of all expected future dividends, discounted at the dividend growth rate.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Which of the following statements is true concerning the electrochemical cell depicted below? Ba | Ba2+(aq) || Zn2+(aq) | Zn Ba2+(aq) + 2e– ® Ba(s); E° = –2.91 V Zn2+(aq) + 2e– ® Zn(s); E° = –0.76 V |
A. The cell reaction is spontaneous with a standard cell potential of 2.15 V. B. The cell reaction is spontaneous with a standard cell potential of 3.67 V. C. The cell reaction is nonspontaneous with a standard cell potential of –2.15 V. D. The cell reaction is nonspontaneous with a standard cell potential of –3.67 V. |
Which of the following statements is true with respect to the degree of operating leverage (DOL)?
It is calculated as the ratio of contribution margin (CM) to operating income, at each level of output.
It can be calculated and used by manufacturing but not service firms.
For most firms, it is relatively constant in amount as sales volume changes.
It is calculated as the amount of operating income × (1 − t), where t = the income tax rate.
It provides a simple way to estimate the change in total fixed cost for a given change in sales volume.
Which of the following statements concerning internal control procedures for merchandise sales is not correct?
Which of the following statements about a project feasibility study is true?
a.
The feasibility study is based on available information and opinions of those
involved in the preparation of such study.
b.
The feasibility study shows the actual results of operations of a business proposal.
c.
The feasibility study is not affected by any significant change in actual business
conditions as compared to the assumptions used when the forecasts were
d.
A feasibility study is a plan for the conduct of business for a planning period and
includes the budgeted income statement and all its supporting budgets.
A.
B.
C.
D.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Which of the following statements are true? Select all that apply.
A If you rewrite a one-variable linear equation and see a statement like 4 = 4
or 4a + 6 = 4a + 6, then the equation has infinitely many solutions.
B If you rewrite a one-variable linear equation and the variable terms are the
same on each side of the equation, then you can solve the equation and find
the value of the variable.
C If a one-variable linear equation has one solution, then every value of the
variable makes the equation true.
D If both sides of a one-variable linear equation have the same variable term and
different constant terms, then the equation has infinitely many solutions.
E If a one-variable linear equation has no solution, then no value of the variable
will make the equation true.
Which of the following statements about Tongass National Forest is false?
-A single large Sitka spruce from Tongass may yield as much as 10,000 board feet of high-quality lumber.
– Tongass is the largest forest in the National Forest System.
– Tongass is a prime logging area because it was clear cut in the early 1900s and has now regrown.
– The modified Tongass Land Management Plan calls for reduced road density to protect wildlife habitat.
– The 1999 modified Tongass Land Management Plan increased timber harvest rotations to 200 years.
3. Which of the following statements is FALSE?
Which of the following statements about the Central Limit Theorem (CLT) is correct?
1. The CLT states that the sample mean is always equal to the population mean.
2. The CLT states that the sampling distribution of the sample mean is approximately normal for large sample sizes (n > 30).
3. The CLT states that the sample mean is equal to the population mean, provided that n > 30.
4. The CLT states that the sampling distribution of the population mean is approximately normal, provided that n > 30.
In a distribution plot, if the mean is equal to the median, is the possible shape of the distribution skewed to the right, skewed to the left, or symmetric?
If batteries have lives that are normally distribute with mean 2, 800 hours and standard deviation 400 hours, using the 68-95-99.7 rule to approximate the percentage of batteries having a life less than 3, 600 hours.
Which of the following statements about managing operating exposure is TRUE?
a. Developing several new lines of business is a very safe and profitable way for a company to combat operating exposure.
b. Financial hedging can be used only on a short-term basis.
c. A company producing unique products would be less exposed to exchange risk because the demand for such products tends to be highly inelastic.
d. If a company’s domestic currency is weak, a company would prefer to locate its production sites abroad.
Which of the following statements about accounting income and economic income is (are) correct?
I. Accounting income ignores many unrealized gains/losses of assets and liabilities, but economic income fully recognizes unrealized gains/losses.
II. Accounting income does not consider all the costs (e.g., opportunity costs), whereas economic income account for all types of costs.
III. Income and capital gains/losses are treated different in the calculation of accounting income, while they are treated the same in the calculation of economic income.
Which of the following statements is false?
Which of the following statements are true?
A. An atome of beryllium will have a longer atomic radius than an atom of boron.
B. An atom of calcium will have a longer atomic radius than an atom of magnesium.
C. An atom of sulfur will have a greater ionization energy than an atom fluorine.
D. The third ionization energy (IE3) of magnesium is less than the second ionization energy (IE2) of magnesium.
E. An atom of magnesium will have a greater ionization energy than an atom of sodium.
What do complement proteins, inflammation and fever have in common?
A. All are part of the specific defenses mechanisms of the immune system (also called adaptive immunity)
B. All are processes that occur in lymph nodes
C. All occur as part of the non-specific defenses
D. All occur as a direct result of antigen processing in an antigen processing cell
Which of the following statements is not correct about the capital allocation line (CAL)?
Question options:
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Capital allocation line using the market index portfolio as the risky asset is called the capital market line (CML). |
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One can achieve the maximum possible return along the capital allocation line by investing 100% in the risky asset. |
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It is a plot of risk-return combinations available by varying allocation between risky and risk-free assets. |
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The slope of the capital allocation line is the Sharpe ratio. |
I. The sampling distribution of ¯xx¯ has standard deviation σ√nσn even if the population is not normally distributed.
II. The sampling distribution of ¯xx¯ is normal if the population has a normal distribution.
III. When nn is large, the sampling distribution of ¯xx¯ is approximately normal even if the the population is not normally distributed.
Which of the following statements regarding polyphenisms is untrue?
a. Shifts in behavior through life in honey bees are an example of polyphenism.
b. Two wasp siblings growing to different sizes is an example of polyphenism.
c. Color patterns may be examples of polyphenisms.
d. Castes in ants and termites are examples of polyphenisms.
e. All the above are true.
D and E are both INCORRECT.
I’m still not sure if a or b is correct. It seems like size IS a polyphenism. It can vary based on nutrition. But insects change behaviors as they grow from pupa to larva to juvenile to adult so I thought a is correct also.
Which of the following statements does not accurately complete this statement: An epigenetic trait _________.
Which of the following statement is an example of inferential statistics?
a. Twenty-eight percent of the selected tourism students love Statistics.
b. Viewership studies using a sample of television households indicate that the share of the audience for channel 5 has increased by 5%.
c. Cigarette were associated with 29% of the 4,470 civilian fire deaths in 1989.
d. Internet access is offered by 45% of Manila Public Libraries, up from 21% in 1994.
Which of the following statements is an example of a descriptive statistics?
a. Based from the present sales trend, it is expected that after two years, this year’s sales will be doubled.
b. To find the more effective method between the lecture type and cooperative learning.
c. At least 5% of the crops were destroyed by insects.
d. Effect of music on the production of corn.
Which of the following statements is an example of inferential statistics?
a. Classical music has a positive effect in the development of unborn babies.
b. The average grade of a student in his seven subjects is 2.86.
c. The sales for the month of January reached the 35 million mark.
d. Fifty percent of the patients in the emergency room are classified trauma patients.
e. According to the census bureau, 20% of all Filipino workers get to work via carpool.
Which of the following statements is true? 1) The shortest wavelength of light is the ultraviolet ray, which is the highest in energy. 2) The longest wavelength of light is the ultraviolet ray, which is the highest in energy 3) The shortest wavelength of light is the visible light, which is the highest in energy 4 ) The shortest wavelength of light is the infrared ray, which is the highest in energy. 5) The longest wavelength of light is the infrared raywhich is the highest in energy .
Which of the following statements is false for a function f that can be differentiated at least twice?
a) If f ′ (c) = 0 and the sign of the derivative function f ′ (x) at point c changes from “+” to “-“, point c is definitely the local maximum point of the function.
b) If f ′ (c) = f ′ ′ (c) = 0, point (c, f (c)) is definitely the inflection point of the function graph.
c) If f ′ (c) = 0 and f ′ ′ (c)> 0, point c is definitely the local minimum point of the function.
d) If f ′ (c) = 0 and f ′ ′ (c) <0, point c is definitely the local maximum point of the function.
e) If f ′ (c) = 0 and the sign of the derivative function f ′ (x) at point c changes from “-” to “+”, point c is definitely the local minimum point of the function.
f) none
17.
Which of the following statements regarding leases is false?
Use Exhibit 1. Which of the following statements is (are) correct?
A. A decrease in demand would cause a surplus at the original price and the equilibrium price would fall
below $18.
B. A decrease in supply would cause a shortage and the quantity sold would decrease such that the
equilibrium quantity is less than 600 units.
C. If the actual price was $18, then the market would be at its equilibrium price.
D. All of the above are correct
E. A and B, only
Which of the following statements about the Bitcoin consensus is INCORRECT:
Which of the following statements about the Bitcoin incentive mechanisms is INCORRECT:
which of the following statement is true>?
1. return on equity is the ratio of total assets to total net income
2. one must know the discount rate to compute the npv of a project but one can compute the IRR without referring to the discount rate.
3. there will always be one IRR regardless of cash flows
4. one must know the discount rate to compute the IRR of a project but one can compute the NPV without referring to the discount rate
5. payback accounts for time value of money
Question 15 options:
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Which of the following statements regarding the lower of cost and net realizable value (LCNRV) rule is true?
Which of the following statements best describes a by-product?
A product created along with the main product whose sales value does not cover its cost of production.
A product that is produced from material that would otherwise be scrap.
A product that usually produces a small amount of revenue when compared to the main product’s revenue.
A product that has a lower unit selling price than the main unit.
A product that has a selling price similar to that of the main product.
Question 13
Which of the following statements is true about r2 in a simple linear regression model?
It is also called the coefficient of determination. |
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It represents the percent of variation in X that is explained by Y . |
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It represents the percent of variation in the error that is explained by Y . |
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It ranges in value from -1 to + 1. |
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It is also called the coefficient of correlation. |
The multiple regression model includes several dependent variables.
True
False
Which of the following statements is most correct?
(a) Generally, firms with high profit margins have high asset turnover ratios.
(b) Having a high current ratio and a high quick ratio is always a good indication a firm is managing its liquidity position well.
(c) Knowing that return on assets {ROA) measures the firm’s effective utilization of assets without considering how these assets are financed, two firms with the same EBIT must have the same ROA.
(d) One way to improve the current ratio is to use cash to pay off current
liabilities.
QUESTION 75
Which of the following statements correctly identifies advantages or disadvantages of a do not resuscitate (DNR) order as compared to a durable power of attorney for health care (DPOAHC)?
A) II and III
B) I and IV
C) II, III, and IV
D) I, II, and IV
Which of the following statements about pre-mRNA splicing is FALSE?
Which of the following statements about electron microscopy are true?
a) Most existing protein structures have been resolved using electron microscopy
b) Electron microscopy is not used in structural biology as it can not give as high a resolution as X-ray crystallography and NMR
c) The smaller a protein, the easier it is to solve its structure with electron microscopy
d) By taking pictures of the same protein frozen in ice thousands of times and then adding them together, you get a high-resolution image of the protein
e) The first protein structure with true atomic resolution was solved using electron microscopy last year
Which of the following statements are true? (more than once could be correct, deductions for incorrect answers).
A. Perfectly competitive markets with many buyers and sellers can normally internalize externalities via natural market forces and therefore do not normally call for policy intervention.
B. Negative externalities cause too much production and consumption of a good relative to the social optimum while positive externalities cause too little production and consumption of a good relative to the social optimum.
C. Negative externalities cause too little production and consumption of a good relative to the social optimum while positive externalities cause too much production and consumption of a good relative to the social optimum.
D. Both positive and negative externalities in an otherwise perfectly competitive market cause deadweight loss.
E. Negative externalities in otherwise perfectly competitive markets cause deadweight loss while positive externalities actually improve outcomes relative to a perfectly competitive outcome.
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It is the value of x that has p area to the left of it under f(x). |
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It is the area under f(x) to the right of p. |
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It is the value of x that has p area to the right of it under f(x). |
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It is the area under f(x) to the left of p. |
a. |
A Scheffe post hoc test tends to be more likely to lead to a Type I error than a Tukey post hoc test.
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b. |
A Scheffe post hoc test compares different condition mean values than a Tukey post hoc test.
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c. |
A Scheffe post hoc test tends to require a greater difference between conditions for a statistically significant difference than a Tukey post hoc test.
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d. |
A Scheffe post hoc test requires smaller sample sizes than a Tukey post hoc test.
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Which of the following statements is true when comparing double declining balance depreciation to straight-line depreciation? a. Double declining balance deductions will be greater than straight-lin e deductions in all years of the asset’s depreciable life b. Double declining balance deductions will be greater than straight-line deductions in early years of the asset’s depreciable life but less in later years c. Straight-line deductions will be greater than double declining balance deductions in all years of the asset’s depreciable life d. Double declining balance deductions will be less than straight-line deductions in early years of the asset’s depreciable life but greater in later years
Which of the following statements about soil is NOT TRUE?
a. Soil consists of mineral and organic matter modified by the natural actions of agents such as weather, wind, water, and organisms.
b. An area’s terrain influences soil formation — steep slopes encourage soil formation and accumulation while valleys discourage the formation of deep soils.
c. Soil formation is a continuous process that takes a long time, sometimes thousands of years, both because the process of rock disintegrating into fine mineral particles is slow, and time is also required for organic material to accumulate in the soil.
d. Minerals, the main component of soil, provide anchorage and essential nutrient minerals for plants, as well as pore space for water and air.
If Q < K, the reaction proceeding to the left is much faster than the reaction proceeding to the right. |
If Q < K, it means the reverse reaction will proceed to form more reactants. |
Because the equilibrium is always dynamic, Q can never be equal to K. |
If Q = K, it means the reaction is not at equilibrium. |
If Q > K, it means the reverse reaction will proceed to form more reactants. |
Which of the following statements are false?
A. A variable is continuous if its set of possible values either is finite or else can be listed in an infinite sequence
in which there is a first number, a second number, and so on.
B. Continuous variables arise from making measurements.
C. The frequency of any particular observation of a discrete variable x is the number of times that value occurs in
the data set.
D. In theory, the relative frequencies should sum to 1.0, but in practice the sum may differ slightly from 1.0 due
to rounding.
E. None of the above
Which of the following statements best explains why anaerobic respiration releases energy from organic compounds
Anaerobic respiration partially oxidizes glucose, which is an organic compound This happens during glycolysis The result of the glycolysis is the net production of 2 ATP molecules which are used by the cell for energy
Anaerobic respiration partially oxidizes glucose, which is an inorganic compound This happens during glycolysis The result of the glycolysis is the net production of 4 ATP molecules which are used by the cell for energy
Anaerobic respiration partially oxidizes glucose, which is an organic compound This happens during glycolysis The result of the glycolysis is the net production of 4 ATP molecules which are used by the cell for energy
Anaerobic respiration fully oxidizes glucose, which is an organic compound This happens during glycolysis The result of the glycolysis is the net production of 4 ATP molecules which are used by the cell for energy
Which of the following statements is/are correct about visible spectrum
only i and iii are correct |
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only ii and iii are correct |
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only statement iii is correct |
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only i and ii are correct |
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All are statements are correct |
can u do only las part please about which statment is true
prove that the symmetric matrix is diagonalizable. (Assume that a is real.)
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a | a |
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0 | a | 0 | ||||
a | 0 | 0 |
Find the eigenvalues of A. (Enter your answers as a comma-separated list. Do not list the same eigenvalue multiple times.)
Find an invertible matrix P such that
is diagonal.
P = |
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Which of the following statements is true? (Select all that apply.)
Which of the following statements about the Securities Act of 1933 is not true?
(1) The third-party user does not have the burden of proof that she/he relied on the
financial statements.
(2) The third party has the burden of proof that the auditor was either negligent or
fraudulent in doing the audit.
(3) The third-party user does not have the burden of proof that the loss was caused
by the misleading financial statements.
(4) The auditor will not be liable if he or she can demonstrate due diligence in
performing the audit.
Which of the following statements about sensory systems is NOT true?
a. Sensory transduction involves the conversion (by either a direct or indirect mechanism) of a physical or chemical stimulus into changes in membrane potential difference.
b. Sensory adaptation plays a role in the ability of organisms to discriminate between important and unimportant information.
c. The term “sensory adaptation” refers to the process by which a sensory cell becomes less sensitive, or less responsive, to a continuing source of stimulation.
d. In general, a stimulus causes a change in the flow of charged ions across the plasma membrane of a sensory receptor cell.
e. The more intense a stimulus is, the greater the peak depolarization of the action potentials fired by the sensory neuron.
Which of the following statements is (are) correct?
(x) If the number of sellers in a market increases, then the supply curve for the good shifts to the right.
(y) If the federal government places regulations on the production and sale of a good, it is probable that the
costs of production will increase and the supply curve for the good will shift to the left.
(z) If buyers change expectations and now believe that the price of the product will fall in the future, then
they will increase demand today before the price decrease occurs.
A. (x), (y) and (z)
B. (x) and (y) only
C. (x) and (z) only
D. (y) and (z) only
E. (y) only.
Which of the following statements is true of affirmative action?
a. It refers to policies that increase educational opportunities for minorities but decrease employment opportunities for the same groups.
b. Recent U.S. Supreme Court decisions have rejected affirmative action claiming that it causes reverse discrimination.
c. The U.S. Supreme Court has accepted “mechanistic” affirmative action programs that amount to quota systems based on race, ethnicity, or gender.
d. Opponents claim that affirmative action violates the principle that all individuals are equal under the law.
Which of the following statements are true?
Which of the following statements is (are) not consistent
with generally accepted accounting principles relating to
asset valuation?
a. Most assets are originally recorded in accounting
records at their cost to the business entity.
b. Subtracting total liabilities from total assets indicates
what the owners’ equity in the business is worth under
current market conditions.
c. Accountants assume that assets such as offi ce supplies,
land, and buildings will be used in business operations
rather than sold at current market prices.
d. Accountants prefer to base the valuation of assets on
objective, verifi able evidence rather than upon apprais-
als or personal opinions.
Which of the following statements relating to intangible assets is true?
A All intangible assets must be carried at amortised cost or at an impaired amount, they cannot
be revalued upwards
B The development of a new process which is not expected to increase sales revenues may still
be recognized as an intangible asset
C Expenditure on the prototype of a new engine cannot be classified as an intangible asset
because the prototype has been assembled and had physical substance
D Impairment losses for a cash-generating unit are first applied to intangible assets before
being applied to tangible assets
Q.Which of the following statement(s) regarding employer health insurance is (are) TRUE? (check all that apply)
A. The (Affordable Care ACt) ACA does not force employers to offer health insurance to their employees.
B. An employer with 100 employees is subject to a tax penalty if it offers health insurance, but at least one employee buys a policy from an Exchange and receives a tax credit.
C. An employer with 75 employees is eligible to a tax credit if it pays at least 50% of the premiums
D. An employer with 25 employees will not be subject to tax penalties if it does not offer health insurance to its employees.
E.EAn employer with 20 employees is eligible for a partial tax credit if it offers health insurance to its employees (subject to a maximum for the average annual wages).
which of the following statements about genome-wide association studies (GWAS) is correct?
A) involves scanning the genomes of thousands of unrelated individuals with a particular mutation and comparing them with the genomes of individuals who do not have the mutation.
B) involves scanning the genomes of thousands of unrelated individuals with a particular disease and comparing them with the genomes of individuals who do not have the disease
C) attempt to identify genes that influence mutation risk
D) attempt to identify genes that influence disease risk
E) involves scanning the genomes of thousands of unrelated individuals with a particular disease and comparing them with the genomes of individuals who do not have the disease and GWAS attempt to identify genes that influence disease risk
Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
When both demand and supply decrease, the quantity increases and the price might rise, fall, or remain the same.
When both demand and supply increase, the quantity decreases and the price might rise, fall, or remain the same.
When both demand and supply increase, the price rises and the quantity might increase, decrease, or remain the same.
When both demand and supply decrease, the quantity decreases and the price might rise, fall, or remain the same.
Which of the following statements about vertebrate circulatory systems is not true?
A. |
In mammals, the blood pressure in the aorta is higher than the pressure in the pulmonary artery. |
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B. |
In fishes, oxygenated blood from the gills returns directly to the heart through the left atrium. |
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C. |
In birds, deoxygenated blood leaves the heart through the pulmonary artery. |
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D. |
In reptiles, the blood in the pulmonary artery has a lower oxygen content than the blood in the aorta. |
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E. |
In amphibians, deoxygenated blood enters the heart through the right atrium. |
Which of the following statements about extensions of time to file certain business income tax returns is true?
a)It is required of mostentities to us e electronic funds transfer to make all federal tax deposits.
b) The IRS will send taxpayers a notification if their request for an extension is approved.
c) Property filing the form wil not automatically give taxpayers the maximum extension of time to file allowed.
d) The maximum extension of the to file allowed from the due date of the taxpayer’s business return is generally three months.
Which of the following statements about the fully validating/lightweight nodes is CORRECT:
A. Fully validating nodes only need to store the pieces that they need to verify specific transactions that they care about.
B. Lightweight nodes must stay permanently connected to hear about all the data.
C. Fully validating nodes must store the entire blockchain and need a good network connection to be able to hear every new transaction and forward it to peers.
D. A lightweight node has the same security level as a fully validating node.
Which of the following statements represent EXPONENTIAL relationships? Check all that apply. |
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Which of the following statements are TRUE?
Multiple answers:Multiple answers are accepted for this question
PLEASE SHOW WORK FOR EACH PART AND EXPLAIN WHY EACH ANSWER CHOICE IS WRONG OR RIGHT
a. The tripeptide His-Lys-Glu has a net charge of -2 at pH 8.0.
b. The tripeptide Asp-Asp-Asp has a net charge of -3 at pH 7.0.
c. The tetrapeptide His-His-His-His has a net charge of -1 at pH 7.0.
d. There are 6 possible sequences for a tripeptide containing Arg – His – and Pro.
e. Certain bacteria synthesize cyclic tetrapeptides. The net charge at pH 7.0 of a cyclic tetrapeptide consisting of two Pro and two Tyr is 0.
Which of the following statements is correct? (2)
(1) When a British firm invests in a bicycle manufacturing facility in South Africa,
the amount concerned is entered as an inflow on the current account of the
South African balance of payments.
(2) When someone purchases a second‐hand car, the transaction is included in
the calculation of GDP in the year the sale took place.
(3) A deficit on the current account of the balance of payments indicates that
the country exported more than it imported during the period in question.
(4) In the base year, the value of nominal GDP is equal to the value of real GDP.
Which of the following statements is true? (Choose all that apply.)
a. If /etc/at.allow exists, only users listed in it can use the at command.
b. If /etc/cron.allow exists, only users listed in it can use the cron command.
c. If /etc/cron.deny exists and /etc/cron.allow does not exist, any user not listed in
/etc/cron.deny can use the cron command.
d. If /etc/cron.allow and /etc/cron.deny exist, only users listed in the former can use the
cron command, and any users listed in the latter are denied access to the cron
command.
e. If a user is listed in both /etc/cron.allow and /etc/cron.deny, then /etc/cron.deny
takes precedence and the user cannot access the crontab command.
Which of the following statements is not true with respect to the performance principle?
a. Auditors are required to prepare a written audit plan during the planning stages of initial audits but are not required to do so in continuing audits.
b. Audit teams consider materiality in planning the audit, performing the audit, and evaluating the effect of misstatements on the entity’s financial statements.
c. In assessing the risk of material misstatements, the audit team considers the effectiveness of the entity’s internal controls in preventing and detecting misstatements.
d. Auditors are required to consider both the relevance and the reliability of evidence in evaluating whether the evidence they have gathered is appropriate.
Which of the following statements are correct regarding the characteristics of a conservatorship (guardianship of the estate) used to care for an incompetent person’s property?
I. the powers of the conservator are set forth in either a revocable living trust or a contingent standby trust.
II. the conservator may have to file annual reports regarding the status of the assets under his care.
III. the conservator may be required to post a performance bond.
IV. the conservator has a fiduciary duty to care for the incompetent person’s property.
A) I, II, III, and IV
B) I and II
C) II, III, and IV
D) I and IV
Which of the following statements about the fully validating nodes/lightweight nodes is INCORRECT:
Which of the following statements about the intensity of a nerve response is true?
Which of the following statements are true:
I. The experience curve represents a linear relationship between output and cost/unit
II. Diseconomies of scale are caused by lower operating and capital costs
III. There is no relationship between the experience curve and economies of scale
IV. Assuming an experience curve, the cost per unit from the 10th to the 11th unit will be higher than the cost from the 25th to the 26th unit
International Paper is trying to find the best paper rolling machine to maximize sales volume. There are three machine options: Machine A, Machine B, and Machine C. Annual revenue is expected to be at one of three possible levels, High, $6 million; Medium, $3 million; or Low, $2 million; but is impacted by machine selection as the probabilities show in the table below:
High Revenue | Medium Revenue | Low Revenue | |
Machine A | .1 | .3 | .6 |
Machine B | .4 | .4 | .2 |
Machine C | .5 | .4 | .1 |
Which machine should International Paper purchase to maximize the expected revenue, and what is the expected revenue?
Group of answer choices
Machine A, $2.7 million
Machine B, $4.0 million
Machine B, $4.6 million
Machine C, $4.4 million
none of the answers provided are correct
Which of the following statements always apply to corporations? (You may select more than one answer. Single click the box with the question mark to produce a check mark for a correct answer and double click the box with the question mark to empty the box for a wrong answer. Any boxes left with a question mark will be automatically graded as incorrect.)
check all that apply
Which of the following statement(s) are true?
Which of the following statements regarding epithelial tissue are true? If a statement is false, correct it to make a true statement.
a. Epithelial tissues are classified by cell shape and the number of cell layers.
b. Epithelial tissues function in protection, immune defenses, secretion, transport, and sensation.
c. Epithelial tissue is highly vascular.
d. A goblet cell is a unicellular exocrine gland that secretes mucus.
e. Pseudostratified epithelium appears to be simple epithelium but is actually stratified.
f. Stratified epithelia are specialized to allow substances to cross their cells rapidly.
a. |
All else equal, a less extreme z-score is needed to obtain statistical significance for a one-tailed than two-tailed hypothesis test.
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b. |
All else equal, a calculated z-score will be smaller for a one-tailed than two-tailed hypothesis test.
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c. |
All else equal, a calculated z-score will be larger for a one-tailed than two-tailed hypothesis test.
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d. |
All else equal, a more extreme z-score is needed to obtain statistical significance for a one-tailed than two-tailed hypothesis test.
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Which of the following statements is (are) correct?
(x) If the supply curve is upward sloping and a shortage exists in a market then the quantity sold will
increase as the price moves to the equilibrium price.
(y) If the supply curve is upward sloping, the demand curve is downward sloping and a surplus exists in a
market then the quantity sold will increase as the price moves to the equilibrium price.
(z) Although suppliers are willing to sell more than buyers are willing to purchase at a price above
equilibrium, more will be sold only if the price decreases.
A. (x), (y) and (z) B. (x) and (y) only
C. (x) and (z) only D. (y) and (z) only
E. (x) only
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Fall 2020 |
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Yi_sales |
Xi_advert |
Xi*Yi |
Xi2 |
Predicted Yi_sales |
Residuals |
Residuals2 |
700 |
8 |
5600 |
64 |
626.6307 |
31.36929 |
984.0326 |
560 |
2 |
1120 |
4 |
292.4166 |
267.5834 |
71600.89 |
1000 |
13 |
13000 |
169 |
892.8691 |
47.13091 |
2221.323 |
302 |
5.8 |
1751.6 |
33.64 |
513.3378 |
-166.338 |
27668.26 |
100 |
2.1 |
210 |
4.41 |
303.7459 |
-179.746 |
32308.57 |
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21681.6 |
275.05 |
134783.1 |
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y-bar = |
532.4 |
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x-bar = |
6.18 |
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Correlation matrix
Fall 2020 |
Yi_sales |
Xi_advert |
Yi_sales |
1 |
0.816882 |
Xi_advert |
0.816882 |
1 |
Suppose you are doing a simple, ordinary least squares regression to predict the sales (in millions) of a Fortune 500 company, Yi,…. using advertising expenditures (in millions), Xi. Above are some calculations completed.
Which of the following statements best represents how to interpret the
sample coefficient of correlation, r, for the sales regression?
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Which of the following statements is (are) correct?
(x) If a shortage exists in a market then the price will rise. As a result, quantity demanded will decrease and
quantity supplied will increase as the market moves to its equilibrium.
(y) Market forces will push the price downward if a surplus exists and the quantity supplied will become
equal to quantity demanded as the price moves to equilibrium.
(z) If the actual price is below the equilibrium price then quantity demanded is more than quantity supplied at
the actual price.
A. (x), (y) and (z)
B. (x) and (y) only
C. (x) and (z) only
D. (y) and (z) only
E. (z) only
(A) As the chemical reaction proceeds, the rate of reaction increases.
(B) The reaction rate almost gets doubled for 10°C rise in temperature.
(C) For a first order chemical reaction, the rate constant has unit of time-1.
(D) Chemical kinetics can predict the rate of a chemical reaction.
2. In a chemical reaction, represented by A → P, it is observed that the rate of reaction increases by a
factor of 4 on doubling the concentration of the reactant. The rate of reaction increases by a factor of 9 on
trebling the concentration of the reactant. Then the rate of the reaction is proportional to
(A) CA
(B) CA2
(C) CA3
(D) CA4
3. An elementary reaction has the stoichiometric equation A + 2B = P. What is the order of reaction
(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) 2
(D) 3
4. It states that the rate of a chemical reaction is directly proportional to the product of the activities or
concentrations of the reactants.
(A) Law of mass action
(C) Arrhenius Law
(B) Le Chatelier’s Principle
(D) Le Mineral Po
Please answer all!
Which of the following statements is true?
a) If the PED for a product is less than zero, the demand for the product is said to be inelastic
b) If the PED for a product is greater than zero, the demand for the product is said to be elastic
c) The flatter the demand curve the more inelastic the demand for the product
d) If the product is a necessity, then the demand tends to be more inelastic
The Consumer Surplus is
a) the difference between what a consumer wishes to buy and what he can afford to buy
b) the difference between what the consumer plans to buy and what he actually buys
c) the difference between what the consumers is willing to pay for a product and what he pays
d) the difference between what the consumer is able to pay and what he actually pays
Which of the following statements regarding the statement
of cash flows is false?
a. The statement of cash flows separates cash inflows and
outflows into three major categories: operating, investing, and financing. b. The ending cash balance shown on the statement of
cash flows must agree with the amount shown on the
balance sheet at the end of the same period.
c. The total increase or decrease in cash shown on the
statement of cash flows must agree with the “bottom
line” (net income or net loss) reported on the income
statement.
d. The statement of cash flows covers a period of time
Which of the following statements is not correct about the stability of nucleus?
a. The stable nuclei of the heavier elements contain approximately equal number of neutrons and protons.
b. Nuclei with even numbers of both protons and neutrons are generally more stable than those with odd number of these particles.
c. All isotopes of the elements with atomic numbers higher than 83 are not radioactive.
d. The stability of any nucleus is determined by the difference between the repulsion and the short-range attraction. The nucleus disintegrates if repulsion prevails.
Please help me with all questions
QUESTION 1)
Which of the following statements is correct?
Group of answer choices:
a) Logistic regression extends the idea of linear regression to the situation where the OUTCOME variable is categorical
b) Logistic regression extends the idea of linear regression to the situation where a PREDICTOR variable is categorical
c) Linear regression extends the idea of logistic regression to the situation where a PREDICTOR variable is categorical
d) Linear regression extends the idea of logistic regression to the situation where the OUTCOME variable is categorical
QUESTION 2)
Which statement is correct with regard to describing the odds of belonging to class 1 in a binary classification model?
Group of answer choices:
a) The ratio of the probability of belonging to class 1 to the probability of belonging to class 0
b) The probability of belonging to class 1
c) The ratio of the probability of belonging to class 0 to the probability of belonging to class 1
d) The probability of belonging to class 0
QUESTION 3)
What is the range for the value of Log Odds, or as it’s called the logit?
Group of answer choices:
a) – to +
b) 0 to +
c) 0 to 1
d) -1 to +1
QUESTION 4)
What is the interpretation of “log odds = 0” in a binary classification model?
Group of answer choices:
a) The probability of belonging to class 1 is zero
b) The probability of belonging to class 1 is undeterminable
c) The probability of belonging to class 1 is almost zero
d) The probability of belonging to class 1 is 0.5
QUESTION 5)
Which of the following statements is NOT a difference between Linear and Logistic Regression?
Group of answer choices:
a) Linear regression is more suitable for explanatory purpose, while logistic regression is more suitable for predictive purpose
b) In linear regression, the relationship between Y and the beta coefficients is non-linear. Whereas in logistic regression, the relationship between Y and the beta coefficients is linear.
c) Linear regression is more suitable for predictive purpose, while logistic regression is more suitable for explanatory purpose
d) In linear regression, the relationship between Y and the beta coefficients is linear. Whereas in logistic regression, the relationship between Y and the beta coefficients is non-linear.
Thank you so much for the help! (Data Analytics)
Which of the following statements is (are) correct?
(x) If the supply of a product increases, we would expect that the equilibrium price would decrease and the
equilibrium quantity would increase.
(y) If the demand for a product decreases, we would expect that the equilibrium price would decrease and
the equilibrium quantity would decrease.
(z) If the demand for a product increases or the supply of a product decreases, we would expect that the
equilibrium price would decrease.
A. (x), (y) and (z)
B. (x) and (y) only
C. (x) and (z) only
D. (y) and (z) only
E. (x) only
Which of the following statements is correct for all amniotes?
A. |
They have internal fertilization, three embryonic membraes, are independent of water for reprodction |
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B. |
They have external fertilization if they live in water, have alantoic membranes to carry oxygenated blood to the embryo, and lack a shell on their eggs. |
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C. |
They lay eggs covered with a shell, are viviporous and have a marsupium |
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D. |
They have an embryonic chorionic membrane that becomes part of the placenta, has cells with Golgi bodies,and a yolk sac |
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E. |
They have three embryonic membranes, have notochords, and are ovoviviparous. |
A) The distribution is normal regardless of the shape of the population distribution when the sample size is small (less than 30).
B) The distribution is normal regardless of the sample size, as long as the population distribution is normal.
C) The distribution’s mean is the same as the population mean.
D) The distribution’s standard deviation is smaller than the population standard deviation.
Which of the following statements about Fiscal Policy is INCORRECT
(a) In order to combat inflation, the South African Reserve Bank must apply a contractionary fiscal policy;
(b) A contractionary fiscal policy can result in higher levels of unemployment;
(c) Expansionary fiscal policy will increase the budget deficit;
(d) The application of fiscal policy will have no effect on aggregate supply in the AD‐AS model.
If the inflation rate is 6% and Susan receives a 6% increase in income, then, over the year, Susan’s:
(a) Real and nominal income both remain unchanged;
(b) Real and nominal income both rise;
(c) Real income rises but nominal income remains unchanged;
(d) Nominal income rises but real income remains unchanged.
Given the import function, Z = 300 + 2/3Y, which of the following statements is correct?
The induced component is 300;
2/3 is the proportion of any income spent on imports;
None of the statements is correct.
which of the following statement is not true?
1)Nitrogen s relative inertness is due to formation of strong and stable bond between 2 nitrogens atom.
2)the bond energy of N2 is relatively higher that makes it relatively inert.
3)the bond energy of an O-H bond is always the same in all compounds that contain an O-H bond
4)carbon-carbon single bond is the longest among all sorts of carbon-carbon bonds
5)a shorter bond in general ,is a stronger bond than a longer bond
Which of the following statements best explains why
nitrogen gas at STP is less dense than Xe gas at STP?
(a) Because Xe is a noble gas, there is less tendency for the Xe
atoms to repel one another, so they pack more densely in
the gaseous state.
(b) Xe atoms have a higher mass than N2 molecules. Because
both gases at STP have the same number of molecules per
unit volume, the Xe gas must be denser.
(c) The Xe atoms are larger than N2 molecules and thus take
up a larger fraction of the space occupied by the gas.
(d) Because the Xe atoms are much more massive than the
N2 molecules, they move more slowly and thus exert
less upward force on the gas container and make the gas
appear denser.
Suppose you are 28 and married. You and your spouse file for income taxes jointly. You are in the 25% tax bracket. You are considering a few personal investment issues.
Suppose you believe that the security market is efficient in the semi-strong form. Which of the following statements is correct?
a. Day trading is good because it may consistently beat the market and it saves transaction costs and taxes.
b. Day trading is not good because it cannot consistently beat the market and it involves high transaction costs and taxes.
c. Day trading may consistently beat the market, but it involves high transaction costs and taxes.
d. Day trading cannot consistently beat the market, but it saves transaction costs and taxes.
Which of the following statements is FALSE?
A. A basis adjustment under 734(b) attributable to a partnership distribution is designed to protect the partners who did not receive the distribution from recognizing built-in gains that belong to the distributee partner.
B. In order to determine the correct tax result for payments to a deceased or retired partner, one must first determine the retiring/deceased partner’s share of the fair market value of partnership assets. Unrealized receivables are not considered an “asset” for this purpose if capital is not material income producing factor (such as a law firm).
C. Payments to a retiring partner that compensate the partner for his share of the fair market value of partnership property are treated as guaranteed payments.
D. All of the above statements are TRUE
Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
Which of the following statements is false?
(a) The quickest way to determine whether a firm has too much debt is to calculate the debt-to-equity ratio.
(b) The best guideline to determine the firm’s liquidity is to calculate the current ratio.
(c) From the investor’s point of view, the rate of return on common equity is a good indicator of whether the firm is generating an acceptable return to the investor.
( d) We can determine the operating margin by expressing net income as a percentage of total sales.
Which of the following statements correctly describes the relationship between the size of the deadweight loss and the amount of tax revenue as the size of a tax increases from a small tax to a medium tax and finally to a large tax?
Both the size of the deadweight loss and tax revenue increase. |
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The size of the deadweight loss increases, but the tax revenue decreases. |
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The size of the deadweight loss increases, but the tax revenue first increases, then decreases. |
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Both the size of the deadweight loss and tax revenue decrease. |
Which of the following statements is correct?
A decrease in the size of a tax always decreases the tax revenue raised by that tax. |
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A decrease in the size of a tax always decreases the deadweight loss of that tax. |
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Tax revenue decreases when there is a small decrease in the tax rate and the economy is on the downward-sloping part of the Laffer curve. |
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An increase in the size of a tax leads to an increase in the deadweight loss of the tax only if the economy is on the upward-sloping part of the Laffer curve. |
Which of the following statements are impossible? Choose all that apply.
a. The parked truck had 8770 J of KE.
b. The scooter had 0 J of KE and 0 kg m/s of momentum.
c. A ball moving in a circle had 0 N of net force acting on it.
d. A box had an acceleration of 0 m/s2 while a net force of 311 N acted on it.
e. Jack exerted 18 N of force due east on a cart. As a direct result, the cart exerted 18 N of force due west upon Jack.
f. A toothpick exerts a smaller gravitational force upon the Moon than the Moon exerts upon it.
QUESTION 13
True division (/) divides a numerator by a denominator and yields a floating-point number with a decimal point. |
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Floor division (//) divides a numerator by a denominator, yielding the highest integer that’s not greater than the result. |
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The expression -13 / 4 evaluates to -3.25. |
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The expression -13 // 4 evaluates to -3 |
QUESTION 14
When a backslash (\) appears in a string, it’s known as the escape character |
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The backslash and the character immediately following it form an escape sequence. For example, \n represents the newline character escape sequence, which tells print to move the output cursor to the next line. |
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Placing two backslashes back-to-back tells print to display a blank line. |
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All of the above statements are true. |
Which of the following statements is/are true?
1 The shareholder needs a statement of financial prospects, ie an indication of future progress.
However, the supplier of goods on credit needs a statement of financial position, ie an indication
of the current state of affairs.
2 The objective of financial statements is to provide information about the financial position,
performance and changes in financial position of an entity that is useful to a wide range of users
in making economic decisions.
A 1 only
B 2 only
C Both 1 and 2
D Neither 1 or 2
Which of the following statements is true?
Which of the following statements is false?
which of the following statement is true concerning the Cobb-Douglas regression for Tunisia shown the figure below
A. The natural log of per-capita income is shown as a function of the natural log of the capital-to-labor ratio, and capital’s share of income is 0.0369
B The natural log of per-capita income is shown as a function of the natural log of the capítal-to-labor ratio, and labor’s share of income is 0.3111
C None of the choices given is correct.e
D The natural log of per-capita income is shown as a function of the natural log of the capital-to-labor ratio, and labor’s share of income is 0.0369
E The natural log of per-capita income is shown as a function of the natural log of the capital-to-labor ratio, and capital’s share of income is 0.3111
i wanna solution …how to do it …not only for the answer
Which of the following statements describes money market securities?
One of the ways in which firms can mitigate or reduce potential conflicts between bondholders and stockholders is by increasing the amount of debt in the capital structure.
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The threat of takeover generally increases potential conflicts between stockholders and managers.
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Managerial compensation plans cannot be used to reduce potential conflicts between stockholders and managers.
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The threat of takeovers tends to reduce potential conflicts between stockholders and managers.
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The creation of the Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC) eliminated conflicts between managers and stockholders.
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Which of the following statements is true with respect to the performance metrics useful for productivity improvement?
Which of the following statements are TRUE about the Normal Distribution? Check all that apply. |
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_____ Which of the following statements is (are) true regarding the current (2020)
US GAAP accounting treatment for intangible assets?
a period no longer than the patent’s remaining legal life.
balance sheet as long as the firm obtains an “independent appraisal” of the
brand value from a brand consulting firm.
Which of the following statements is true about joint optimal fiscal and monetary policy? “Despite the need to raise government revenue in non-lump-sum manner:”
(a) obtaining economic efficiency along the consumption—leisure margin, is a goal more important in optimal macroeconomic policy, more so than achieving efficiency along the consumption-money margin.
(b) obtaining economic efficiency along the consumption—money margin, is a goal more important in optimal macroeconomic policy, more so than achieving efficiency along the consumption-leisure margin.
(c) obtaining economic efficiency along the consumption—money margin, is a goal equal as important in optimal macroeconomic policy, as achieving efficiency along the consumption-leisure margin.
(d) None of the above.
Show work and formula please thank you
Which of the following statements is not true of the sampling distribution of a sample mean?
The mean rate for cable with internet from a sample of households was $106.50 per month with a standard deviation of $3.85 per month. Assuming the dataset has a normal distribution, estimate the percent of households with rates from $100 to $115.
Question 1
(i) Which of the following statements is most likely to lead to an effective code of ethics in a corporate governance?
A. If leadership reflects management’s personal values.
B. When the unwritten code of ethics is effective in influencing behaviour.
C. If the rules on ethical behaviour in the code of ethics are prescriptive and explicit.
D. When management behavior is congruent with the principles of the corporate code of ethics.
(ii) Corporate governance in emerging market firms is important from the investors’ point of view:
A. because effective corporate governance might make up for country weakness in the overall national governance system.
B. because many companies are held by family businesses.
C. because effective corporate governance requires the agents to work on behalf of shareholders.
D. because family businesses do not follow the law.
(iii) Which one of the following is NOT a function of the board of a large public company?
A. the selection of auditors.
B. monitoring the CEO’s performance.
C. Managing the day to day operations of the corporation.
D. The oversight of management in the application of policies and guidelines about the pricipal risks faced by the company.
(iv) Which of the following statement is correct?
A. All members of the audit committee should be independent non-executive directors.
B. Members of the audit committee should be appointed by the board, on the recommendation of the nomination committee in consultation with the audit committee chairperson.
C. Members of the audit committee shall be appointed by the audit commitee chairperson
D. Appointments to the commitee are made by the board upon consultation of the audit committee chairperson.
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Which of the following statements best describes the idea of a minimum viable product?
a. A prototype of a new product or service that tests the technical feasibility of the product.
b. A prototype of the new production facility or service delivery organization that determines if the product or service can be produced economically at scale.
c. A prototype of a new product or service that allows the team to collect the maximum
amount of learning with the least amount of effort.
d. None of these statements is correct.
Which of the following statements about the bonding atomic
radii in Figure 7.7 is incorrect? (i) For a given period, the radii
of the representative elements generally decrease from left
to right across a period. (ii) The radii of the representative
elements for the n = 3 period are all larger than those of the
corresponding elements in the n = 2 period. (iii) For most
of the representative elements, the change in radius from the
n = 2 to the n = 3 period is greater than the change in radius
from n = 3 to n = 4. (iv) The radii of the transition elements
generally increase moving from left to right within a period.
(v) The large radii of the Group 1A elements are due to their
relatively small effective nuclear charges.
Which of the following statements is (are) correct?
(x) If the number of sellers in a market increases, then the supply curve for the good shifts to the right.
(y) If the federal government places regulations on the production and sale of a good, it is probable that the
costs of production will increase and the supply curve for the good will shift to the left.
(z) If buyers change expectations and now believe that the price of the product will fall in the future, then
they will increase demand today before the price decrease occurs.
A. (x), (y) and (z) B. (x) and (y) only
C. (x) and (z) only D. (y) and (z) only
E. (y) only
Which of the following statements is false?
a. |
The long-run average-total-cost curve does not connect the minimum points of each of the short-run average-total-cost curves. |
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b. |
The long-run average-total-cost curve shows the minimum cost of producing each level of output when all resources are variable. |
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c. |
The short-run average-total-cost curve shows the minimum costs of producing each level of output when at least one input is fixed. |
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d. |
If short-run average-total-costs are declining, then economies of scale exist. |
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e. |
None of the above. |
Group of answer choices
Parasympathetic (sympathetic) innervation of the sphincter pupillae stimulates pupil dilation.
Photoreceptors in the retina are of two types: rods and cones.
Eye color is determined by that of the iris.
A. Light striking the fovea centralis goes unnoticed and is commonly called the “blind spot”.
B. Light entering the eye passes through the cornea, anterior chamber, pupil, lens, and vitreous body, from outer to inner.(posterior only)
C. Movement of the extrinsic muscles of the eye is controlled by the autonomic (optic nerve) nervous system.
D. Because lacrimal fluid ultimately enters into the nasal cavity, people often sniffle when they cry.
F. The adjustability of the lens allows the eye to focus on nearby objects.
a. |
The aggregate demand and aggregate supply model is nothing more than a large version of the model of market demand and supply.
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b. |
The price level and quantity of output adjust to bring aggregate demand and supply into balance.
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c. |
The aggregate supply curve shows the quantity of goods and services that households, firms, and the government want to buy at each price.
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d. |
The aggregate demand shows the quantity of goods and services that firms are willing to produce at a given price level.
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Which of the following statement is most correct? When solving a problem involving an annuity dueyou must select the END model on your financial calculator When using a financial calculatorcash outflows generally have to be entered as negative numbers because a financial calculator sees money leaving your hands The present value of a single future sum of money is POSITIVELY related to both the number of years until payment is received and the discount rate In the loan amortization tablethe payment is constant, the interest payment is increasing and the principals are declining.
Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
a. A good goal for a rm’s management is maximization of expected EPS.
b. Most business in the U.S. is conducted by corporations, and corporations’ popularity resultsprimarily from their favorable tax treatment.
c. Because most stock ownership is concentrated in the hands of a relatively small segment ofsociety, rms’ actions to maximize their stock prices have little benet to society.
d. Corporations and partnerships have an advantage over proprietorships because a sole proprietoris exposed to unlimited liability, but the liability of all investors in the other types of businesses ismore limited.
e. The potential exists for agency conicts between stockholders and managers.
Please explain.
Logistic regression can be used for modeling the continuous response variable with dichotomous explanatory variable.
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Logistic regression can be used for modeling the dichotomous response variable with dichotomous explanatory variable.
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Logistic regression can be used for modeling the continuous response variable with dichotomous or other type of categorical explanatory variables.
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Logistic regression can be used for modeling the dichotomous response variable with dichotomous and not for continuous explanatory variables.
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Logistic regression can be used for modeling the dichotomous response variable with categorical explanatory variables and/or continuous explanatory variables.
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Which of the following statements is false?
Which of the following statements is correct?
a. the mass of chemical substances deposited at the electrodes is inversely proportional to amount of time.
b. the mass of chemical substances deposited at the electrodes is inversely proportional to equivalent mass (EM) which is equivalent to molar mass of the substance divided by the number of electrons transferred.
c. the mass of chemical substances deposited at the electrodes is not related to ampere. time, and EM.
d. the mass of chemical substances deposited at the electrodes is directly proportional to amount of electricity passed through the solution.
Which of the following statements is (are) correct?
(x) If a shortage exists in a market then the price will rise. As a result, quantity demanded will decrease and
quantity supplied will increase as the market moves to its equilibrium.
(y) Market forces will push the price downward if a surplus exists and the quantity supplied will become
equal to quantity demanded as the price moves to equilibrium.
(z) If the actual price is below the equilibrium price then quantity demanded is more than quantity supplied at
the actual price.
A. (x), (y) and (z)
B. (x) and (y) only
C. (x) and (z) only
D. (y) and (z) only
E. (z) only
Which of the following statements is correct?
Group of answer choices
The more similar Firm A’s product is to Firm B’s product, the more likely Firm A is to advertise.
Monopolistically competitive firms advertise in order to increase the elasticity of the demand curve they face.
According to the signaling theory, the more product information an advertisement contains, the more effective it is.
Brand names may help consumers if they provide information about the quality of a product when acquiring such information is difficult.
A. An atom with high electronegativity is an electron donor because it has high ionization energy
B. An atom with a high electronegativity is an electron donor because it has already has too many electrons
C. An atom with a high electronegativity is an electron acceptor because it has a high affinity for electrons.
D. An atom with high electronegativity can be a electron acceptor or donor because electron affinity can be (+) or (-)
Which of the following statements about managing operating exposure is TRUE?
If a company’s domestic currency is weak, a company would prefer to locate its production sites abroad.
Financial hedging can be used only on a short-term basis.
Developing several new lines of business is a very safe and profitable way for a company to combat operating exposure.
A company producing unique products would be less exposed to exchange risk because the demand for such products tends to be highly inelastic.
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1. Which of the following statements about information technology is FALSE?
a. Some companies have been threatened by information technology.
b. Information technology can create new product opportunities.
c. Information technology has caused the price of information to remain stable.
d. Part of Walmart’s success is due to information technology.
2. An information system that managers design in order to have access to specific information that they need to perform their job effectively is known as a(n) __________.
a. software agent
b. MIS
c. artificial intelligence system
d. expert system
3. Some management scholars have argued that the use of MIS systems has reduced the need for “tall” management structures. Do you agree or disagree with this conclusion? Support your answer.
4. Discuss the four factors that determine how useful information is to a manager, and give a specific business example of each of these factors in a specific business situation of your choosing.
Which of the following statements about the short-run production function is true?
a. MP always equals AP at the maximum point of MP.
b. MP always equals zero when TP is at its maximum point.
c. TP starts to decline at the point of diminishing returns.
d. When MP diminishes, AP is at its minimum point.
e. None of the above is true.
Which of the following statements are true about decay rates and half-life?
True False a large decay constant implies a long half-life
True False in carbon dating, the radioactive isotope of carbon that is used is carbon-12
True False half-life is the time it takes for a radioactive sample to decay away to nothing
True False radioactive nuclei decay over time according to a quadratic decay law
True False a small decay constant means that the isotope has a high activity
Which of the following statements about the short-run production function is true?
– MP always equals AP at the maximum point of MP.
– MP always equals zero when TP is at its maximum point.
– TP starts to decline at the point of diminishing returns.
– When MP diminishes, AP is at its minimum point
– None of the above is true.
Which of the following statements about the sodium-potassium pump is true:
a. it transports hydrogen ions out of the cell
b. it transports 3 sodium ions out of the cell in exchange for 2 potassium ions
c. it transports 2 sodium ions out of the cell in excahnge for 2 potassium ions
d. it transports 2 sodium ions out of the cell in exchange for 3 potassium ions
e. it transports water directly out of the cell
Which of the following statements about consumer ethics is most accurate?
A. Consumer complaints about online auction fraud outnumber all reports of online crime.
B. The cost to marketers of unethical consumer behavior is negligible in terms of lost sales.
C. The potential cost to marketers of unethical consumer behavior is dramatically reduced by investing in loss prevention training.
D. Retailers lose about $1 million dollars a day from shoplifting.
E. At some point, every person shoplifts or participates in an unethical exchange; to retailers, it is simply the cost of doing business.
Which of the following statements about investment decision models is true?
a) the discounted payback rate takes into account cash flows for all periods.
b) the payback rule ignores all cash flows after the end of the payback period.
c) the net present value model says to accept investment opportunities when their rates of return exceed the company’s incremental borrowing rate.
d) the internal rate of return rule is to accept the investment if the opportunity cost of capital is greater than the internal rate of return.
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